2008年上海市普通高等学校春季招生考试
英语试卷
第I卷(共105分)
I. Listening Comprehension
Part A Short Conversations
Directions: In Part A, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.
1. A. Go to the library. B. Give the woman a ride.
C. Meet his friend. D. Follow the woman’s directions.
2. A. 15 minutes. B. 45 minutes. C. An hour. D. An hour and a quarter.
3. A. In a hotel. B. In a restaurant. C. In a cafeteria. D. In a pizza hut.
4. A. Employer and employee. B. Husband and wife.
C. Teacher and student. D. Patient and doctor.
5. A. She’s not interested in the walk. B. She’s too busy to take a walk.
C. She does not want to do anything. D. She’ll go after she finishes her work.
6. A. She did the exam with ease. B. She hated taking exams.
C. The exam was far beyond her. D. The exam was cancelled.
7. A. She doesn’t spend much time with her friends.
B. She doesn’t like her new school.
C. She has adapted easily to her new school.
D. She spends most of her free time at school.
8. A. He bought a lot of food for his brother. B. His brother helped him clean the fridge.
C. He went out to eat with his brother. D. His brother ate up the food in the fridge.
9. A. He hasn’t had time to try it on yet. B. It doesn’t fit him very well.
C. He dislikes the large shirt. D. He has forgotten to wear it.
10. A. The man can bring his cousin to the party. B. There will be too many people at the party.
C. She feels sorry the man is not coming. D. She feels happier to have more parties.
Part B Passages
Directions: In Part B, you will hear two short passages, and you will be asked three questions on each of the passages. The passages will be read twice, but the questions will be spoken only once. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.
Questions 11 through 13 are based on the following passage.
11. A. The boss increased the staff’s wages. B. The cash in the bakery was gone.
C. A baker lost some pocket money. D. A vacant position was available.
12. A. She began to save her pocket money. B. She couldn’t get along well with other girls.
C. She spent much money on entertainment. D. She started to be fond of videos and CDs.
13. A. Upset and guilty. B. Shocked and sad.
C. Innocent and hopeful. D. Worried and disappointed.
Questions 14 through 16 are based on the following news.
14. A. 50 million. B. 57 million. C. 120 million. D. 128 million.
15. A. For financial aid. B. For accurate policy making.
C. For economic growth. D. For knowing the level of education.
16. A. Helping the developing countries.
B. Establishing a partnership with the WHO.
C. Improving people’s health.
D. Keeping correct records of births and deaths.
Part C Longer Conversations
Directions: In Part C, you will hear two longer conversations. The conversations will be read twice. After you hear each conversation, you are required to fill in the numbered blanks with the information you have heard. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Blanks 17 through 20 are based on the following conversation.
| YOUR IDEAL PARTNER |
| Age: Around 17 Occupation: 18 Personality: Relatively 19 and fun-loving Hobbies: 20 sports, such as tennis… |
Complete the form. Write ONE WORD for each answer.
Blanks 21 through 24 are based on the following conversation.
| What is the advantage of the first place ? | You can eat as much 21 as you want. |
| Why do the speakers give up the first choice? | There is no 22 or dryer… not even a TV. |
| Where is the second place located? | It’s on 23 of the island. |
| What are the speakers talking about? | A rental home for 24 . |
Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
II. Grammar and Vocabulary
Directions: Beneath each of the following sentences there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one answer that best completes the sentence.
25. Nowadays a lot of adults go to evening schools _____ further education.
A. after B. in C. for D. on
26. Many fast-growing countries are less concerned with protecting _____ against climate change.
A. one B. oneself C. them D. themselves
27. When I was young, I was told that I _____ play with matches.
A. wouldn’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. daren’t
28. Those who have _____ money than sense may sometimes act foolishly.
A. much B. more C. most D. many
29. Population experts predict that most people _____ in cities in the near future.
A. live B. would live C. will live D. have lived
30. You didn’t use to like him much when we were at school, _____?
A. were we B. weren’t we C. did you D. didn’t you
31. Officials say that few patients _____ with the virus owing to the effective prevention.
A. infected B. are infected C. have infected D. be infected
32. As a new driver, I have to practise _____ the car in my small garage again and again.
A. parking B. to park C. parked D. park
33. The news _____ our athletes won another gold medal was reported in yesterday’s newspaper.
A. which B. whether C. what D. that
34. Due to the heavy rain and flooding, ten million people have been forced _____ their homes.
A. leaving B. to leave C. to be left D. being left
35. Please remind me of the meeting again tomorrow _____ I forget.
A. though B. so that C. in case D. until
36. _____ this is only a small town, it’s crowded with tourists who come here all year round.
A. Since B. Unless C. Once D. Although
37. Villagers here depend on the fishing industry, _____ there won’t be much work.
A. where B. that C. by which D. without which
38. Throughout history, the language _____ by a powerful group spreads across a civilization.
A. speaking B. spoken C. to speak D. to be spoken
39. If we have illegal immigrants _____ in, many local workers will lose their jobs.
A. came B. coming C. to come D. having come
40. _____ we are sure about is the need to prevent children from being spoiled.
A. What B. Which C. Whether D. That
41. The story of the homeless orphan has _____ sympathy from the public.
A. aroused B. attracted C. defended D. adopted
42. Food safety is _____ important, so the government spares no efforts to prevent food pollution.
A. highly B. reasonably C. strongly D. naturally
43. Every ton of this recycled paper uses 90 litres of water in its _____.
A. structure B. manufacture C. construction D. organization
44. Some people maintain that watching violence on TV is one of the major causes of _____ behaviour and crime in society.
A. childish B. artificial C. aggressive D. heroic
III. Cloze
Directions: For each blank in the following passages there are four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Fill in each blank with the word or phrase that best fits the context.
(A)
I was interested to read a newspaper article about a new concept in old people’s homes in France. The idea is simple, 45 revolutionary — combining a residential home for the elderly with a nursery school in the same building. The children and the residents eat lunch together and 46 activities such as music, painting, gardening, and 47 for the pets which the residents are encouraged to keep. In the afternoons, the residents enjoy reading or telling stories to the children, and 48 a child is feeling sad or tired, there is always somebody attending to him. There are trips out and birthday parties, too.
The 49 are enormous for everyone concerned. The children are happy because they get a lot more individual 50 and respond well because someone has time for them. They also learn that old people are not “different” or frightening in 51 way. And of course, they see illness and death and learn to 52 them. The residents are happy because they feel 53 and needed. They are more active and more interested in life when the children are around and they take more interest in their appearance too. And the staff are happy because they see an improvement in the 54 and psychological health of the residents and have an army of assistants to help with the children.
45. A. or B. so C. nor D. but
46. A. share B. examine C. control D. engage
47. A. asking B. sending C. caring D. looking
48. A. though B. because C. unless D. if
49. A. advantages B. actions C. difficulties D. comforts
50. A. thought B. attention C. rest D. freedom
51. A. no B. any C. another D. the
52. A. value B. admit C. accept D. overcome
53. A. useful B. faithful C. powerful D. skillful
54. A. normal B. public C. economic D. physical
(B)
The latest reform in testing is the computerized test. Test questions and answer choices are presented on the 55 and students can answer with a tap of the keyboard or a click of the mouse. Before the actual test begins, there usually is an instruction showing how to use the computer to 56 the questions. Scores are displayed on the screen at the end of the test so that a student has immediate feedback 57 having to return several days later for results.
Some computerized tests are “adaptive”. This means that a test question is selected from a large pool of items based on how the test taker has responded to the 58 question. The first question presented is of medium difficulty. If the test taker answers 59 , the next item will be more difficult. If he or she answers incorrectly, the next question will be easier. The computer 60 questions by level of difficulty and many other factors, such as sex, race and age references, subject area the question is drawn from, and form of question, before presenting it on the screen. In this way, the questions are “adapted” to find the true skill 61 of the test taker.
Among all the conveniences of computerized testing, there are some 62 . No longer can you have a quick look at the 63 test, answer the easy questions first, and come back later to finish the difficult ones. Test items are presented one at a time, and you must choose an answer in order to move on to the next question. On adaptive tests, once you have confirmed your answer, you cannot go back to 64 it if, later on, you realize that your answer was wrong.
55. A. screen B. paper C. board D. surface
56. A. put aside B. concentrate on C. respond to D. apply to
57. A. other than B. rather than C. regardless of D. as to
58. A. previous B. basic C. following D. single
59. A. briefly B. smartly C. correctly D. thoughtfully
60. A. classifies B. answer s C. considers D. recognizes
61. A. standard B. factor C. pattern D. level
62. A. qualities B. limits C. services D. features
63. A. formal B. objective C. final D. entire
64. A. identify B. exchange C. change D. overlook
IV. Reading Comprehension
Directions: Read the following four passages. Each passage is followed by several questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that fits best according to the information given in the passage you have just read.
(A)
One night, Mrs Riley, an elderly woman, was walking along a dark, London street. She was carrying her handbag in one hand and a plastic carrier bag in the other. There was nobody else in the street except two youths. They were standing in a dark shop doorway. One of them was very tall with fair hair, the other was short and fat with a beard.
The youths waited for a few moments, and then ran quickly and quietly towards Mrs Riley. The tall youth held her from behind while the other youth tried to seize her handbag.
Suddenly, Mrs Riley threw the tall youth over her shoulder. He crashed into the other youth and they both landed on the ground. Without speaking, Mrs Riley struck both of them on the head with her handbag, and walked calmly away.
The two surprised youths were still sitting on the ground when Mrs Riley crossed the street towards a door with a lighted sign above it. Mrs Riley paused, turned round, smiled at the youths and walked into the South West London Judo（柔道）Club.
65. The two youths were standing in a dark shop doorway because _____.
A. they had nothing to do B. they were homeless
C. they were waiting for a victim D. they were guarding the shop
66. What did Mrs Riley do to the two youths?
A. She hurt them seriously. B. She taught them a lesson.
C. She reported them to the police. D. She sent them to a judo club.
67. The story tells about an elderly woman who _____.
A. went shopping at night B. was on her way home
C. had just left a shopping center D. had a skill of self-defence
(B)
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68. This passage most probably is a (n) _____.
A. advertisement B. news story
C. lab report D. letter of thanks
69. From the passage we learn that Mindle is a device which _____.
A. has neither wires nor weight B. is operated by a computer
C. disappears while you read D. can find a book within one minute
70. With the device, the reader is able to _____.
A. enjoy reading when driving a car B. improve reading skills
C. gain access to free software D. get rid of heavy books made of paper
71. Different from mobile phones, Mindle _____.
A. has a much more friendly screen B. can work in the absence of electricity
C. doesn’t involve regular fees D. is wireless and can be used anywhere
(C)
Small discoveries in Indonesia are causing a stir in the science world. Researchers have unearthed (挖掘) tiny bones that they believe belong to an entirely new human species. If that’s true, it will change how we think about our ancestors.
Clues that the little people may have lived long ago were first revealed last year in the scientific journal Nature. Scientists said that they had found the bones of a three-foot-tall female on the island of Flores, in Indonesia. When they looked more closely, they saw that the nearly complete skeleton (骨骼) belonged to a full-grown adult. Researchers named her Hobbit, after the tiny heroes of the Lord of the Rings books.
Now the team is saying it has unearthed even more pieces of the puzzle, including a jawbone and parts of arms, legs and hands from several individuals, as well as stone tools. They reported their find in Nature this month. “The new evidence makes it very clear that these people are a new species, distinct from modern humans,” Peter Brown, a scientist on the team, said. They named these ancient humans Homo floresiensis.
Brown says that these little people lived as recently as 12,000 years ago. If Homo floresiensis was a different species from modern humans, that would make our family tree bigger than we knew. It means, says Brown, that “until recently, a relative shared the planet with us.”
Many scientists think a new species is unlikely. Some argue that the bones must have belonged to modern humans whose small size was the result of a genetic problem.
Daniel E. Lieberman, a scientist at Harvard University, thinks that the debate over the discovery is healthy. He believes that the questions and arguments raised by critics will help us learn more about these unusual skeletons. “Disagreement is an important part of the scientific process,” Lieberman said. “As far as I’m concerned, the story’s only just begun.”
72. Researchers name the skeleton Hobbit because _____.
A. it is a figure described in the Lord of the Rings
B. it resembles the tiny heroes in a set of books
C. it proves to be a full-grown adult
D. it belongs to an ancient human species
73. Small discoveries in Indonesia are important because _____.
A. they are revealed in the scientific journal Nature
B. they are made by Peter Brown, a famous scientist
C. they are about ancestors of modern humans
D. they might provide new evidence for human study
74. According to Daniel E. Lieberman, _____.
A. Homo floresiensis doesn’t exist B. disagreement leads to further research
C. the investigation hasn’t begun yet D. our family tree is bigger than we knew
75. Which of the following might be the best title of the passage?
A. Comparison between Different Peoples
B. Arguments over Human Origin
C. Discovery of a Possible New Human Species
D. History of Indonesian People
(D)
Rail passengers are being forced to pay thousands of pounds more in fares as a result of poor advice from the national telephone helpline and individual stations, a consumer organisation reveals today. Research by Which? found that in some cases passengers are being charged almost double the cheapest price because of errors made by staff.
Which? asked 25 questions of both station staff and the National Rail Enquiries (NRES) helpline. Only half of the 50 questions were answered correctly. If customers had followed all the advice given, they would have been £1,263.60 worse off.
Bad advice was given for the cheapest fare for a single journey between London and Grantham. For a ticket bought on the day of travel, both NRES and a King’s Cross station clerk quoted GNER’s £44.50 fare, ignoring a Hull Trains service which leaves 10 minutes earlier and costs just £20.
Some of the most costly misinformation was given for journeys where season tickets should have been recommended. Passengers making a return journey between Swindon and Penzance twice in a week could buy a ticket from one company for £70 which would cover all the travel. But both NRES and station staff quoted £67 for each journey, making £134. However, the NRES website proved to be a much more reliable source of information.
Which? also checked “the earlier you book, the cheaper the ticket” claims by five companies and found this was not always the case. On some services, prices went up and down at random.
Ithiel Mogridge, 52, gave one example of poor advice: “Last Christmas I found my brother a ticket on the thetrainline.com to travel from Blackburn to Yate. While the direct route was £51, this one involved a change in Newport and cost just £21. I emailed the details to him and his partner. They went to Blackburn station, where the clerk insisted the fare was £51.”
Malcolm Coles, editor of which.co.uk, said: “Staff training needs to be improved. In the meantime, we’ve designed a checklist, available at which.co.uk/railadvice.”
76. According to the passage, “Which?” is a _____.
A. national telephone helpline B. department under the British Rail
C. consumer organisation D. website under the National Rail Enquiries
77. When the author said that customers “would have been £1,263.60 worse off”, he was telling us that customers would have _____.
A. saved £1,263.60 if they had followed the advice
B. spent £1,263.60 more than the lowest price
C. used £1,263.60 for the survey of 25 questions
D. been cheated of £1,263.60 from the poor advice
78. The phrase at random in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to “_____”.
A. casually B. purposefully C. exactly D. inevitably
79. The passage is mainly concerned with the phenomenon that _____.
A. train passengers get bad advice on fares
B. rail passengers are ill-treated by station staff
C. booking clerks and the telephone helpline offer reliable information
D. rail passengers can get cheaper tickets if they book earlier
(E)
Directions: Read the following text and choose the most suitable heading from A-F for each paragraph. There is one extra heading which you do not need.
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European television had the idea of taking ordinary people and turning them into “stars” by putting them in unusual situations. “Big Brother” (created in Holland) was one of the first. A group of people were locked in a small house with cameras running 24 hours a day. It was called a “watch and dial” show because viewers vote by telephone to decide who should leave or stay.
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“Big Brother” was probably the first of the new reality shows, but such a programme has developed. Many have found appeal by having a theme to them, but most are based on the principle of “survival of the fittest” by eliminating participants as the series progresses. So we have the dating shows where winners either pair off or stay true to their partners outside the TV studio. Then there are those that test people’s abilities for specific jobs like running a kitchen, becoming an interior designer or a top model.
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Critics say these programmes are basically bad television, but people watch them. So why are there so many of them? For the viewer it’s an opportunity to “people watch”. It’s natural to like watching other people. They’re interesting. We can imagine what we would do in that situation. We get to know the characters and see them grow and develop week after week. And of course, television is the perfect place to watch people. Like the theatre or cinema we can look at other people and they can’t look back. But with television, we can watch in the privacy of our own homes. We watch, but we don’t have to admit it to anyone.
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The TV companies like reality shows because they are cheap to produce and attract younger viewers, which advertisers like. The last “Big Brother” in Britain attracted enormous advertising revenue. They aren’t dependent on “star” actors with enormous salaries. And your actors won’t go on strike. And why do people participate in them? Well, for fame and money of course. In the past, appearing on television wasn’t for ordinary people. You had to be good at something, like sport, or reading the news, or acting. But not any more.
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It seems that most shows do well at the beginning but then the viewing figures begin to fall. And it varies from country to country too. For example, one show had an adopted child try to guess the identity of her real father, and another had a family arguing over an inheritance. Both were cancelled after one episode. Perhaps the novelty has worn off. Certainly, reality TV seems to appeal much more to the younger audience. And now there are so many shows around even the young have become more critical. Reality shows will probably survive — it’s just no longer so easy to make a successful one.
第II卷（共45分）
I. Translation
Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets.
1．你擦一下窗好吗？(mind)
2．有困难请向警察求助。(turn to)
3．他一到上海就和我们取得了联系。(contact)
4．演出还没有结束，孩子们就睡着了。(before)
5．导演得知自己的影片获奖，感到无比自豪。(award)
6．这些十八世纪的油画保存得这样好，使参观者大为惊叹。(so … that)
II. Guided Writing
Directions: Write an English composition in 120 –150 words according to the instructions given below.
你班打算组织一次为期两天的旅游。给旅行社写封信，按照你们的预算，提出食、住、行、游等方面的具体要求，请旅行社予以安排。（信的开头和结尾已给出。）
参考答案
第I卷
第一大题第1至第10小题，每题1分；第11至第16小题，每题2分；第17至第24小题，每题1分。共30分。
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. D
17. 22 18. Teacher 19. open 20. Outdoor
21. fruit 22. washing machine 23. the sunny side 24. vacation
第二大题至第三大题，每小题1分。共40分。
25. C 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. C
30. C 31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B
35. C 36. D 37. D 38. B 39. B
40. A 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. C
45. D 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. A
50. B 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D
55. A 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. C
60. A 61. D 62. B 63. D 64. C
第四大题第65至79小题，每题2分；第80至84小题，每题1分。共35分。
65. C 66. B 67. D 68. A 69. D
70. D 71. C 72. B 73. D 74. B
75. C 76. C 77. B 78. A 79. A
80. E 81. F 82. B 83. D 84. A
第II卷
I. 翻译 共20分。
参考答案（仅供阅卷老师参考）
1. Do you mind /Would you mind cleaning the window?
2. (Please)Turn to the police for help when (you are) in trouble.
3. He contacted us as soon as he arrived in Shanghai.
4. The children had fallen asleep/gone to sleep before the performance ended/was over.
5. Learning that he was awarded/won an award for his film, the director felt very proud of himself/ was full of pride.
6. These eighteenth-century oil paintings have been/are preserved so well that the visitors are greatly amazed/impressed.